The right to legislate
The second bone of contention between the secular and Islamist schools, is man's right to legislate; this is reference to a previous entry where I made the claim that the difference between the two political viewpoints are not be as insurmountable as they might first appear.
Whereas the first point addressed was fairly general, and related to the perceived jurisdiction of the Islamic Shariah, the point discussed here is more specific, and potentially more problematic, as it is portrayed as being a dispute about the the sovreignty of the Creator verses that of the creation. The proponents of political Islam maintain that legislation is the exclusive right of the Creator, and any attempt to allow man to legislate is seen as a direct challenge to the Creator's sole sovreign right to legislate.
The purpose here is not to comment on the validity or consistency of either argument, but rather to caputre the essence of what each party is claiming, in an effort to understand why they differ, and how their differences could be reconciled.
Evidence is presented by the proponents of political Islam, in support of the argument that it is disebelief/Kufr to knowingly rule by other than what the Creator has revealed, or to knowingly support such a ruling system. This is because in origin the rule should be with the Creator alone, and referring to other than the Creator in any matter of ruling or judgement constitutes idolisation of the Taghoot (anything worshipped or obeyed instead of Allah), and is tantamount to disbelief/Kufr. Wahhabi literature abounds with such arguments, thoroughly supported by textual evidence from the scriptures.
How then, can such a view be reconciled with a view that maintains it is perfectly acceptable for man to judge, rule, legislate and be obeyed, without reference to the Creator or to religion? At face value, their argument is both water-tight and non-negotiable. Probing further however, reveals otherwise.
The Islamists' objection to man's ruling by other than what the Creator revealed hinges on three implicit assumptions:
- that the business of ruling is one of passing legal judgement, as in a court,
- that for all matters of ruling there is a known judgement revealed by the Creator, and
- that these judgements are being ignored by not being explicitly referred to in ruling.
As discussed in a previous posting, the Islamists, while insisting that all aspects of human relationships (including politics) are addressed by Divine revelation, they nevertheless concede that the bulk of these relations that relate to politics and ruling, fall under the category of permissible (Mubah) actions. In other words, for those aspects of ruling that are permissible , the ruler is permitted to pass legislation, but is under no Islamic obligation to do so. Furthermore, in passing this legislation, the ruler is permitted to adopt whatever position he sees fit, provided that such laws do not cause the public to become sinful by preventing them for carrying out their obligations or forcing them to engage in prohibited actions.
The ruler is thus at liberty to choose any such laws that are deemed to serve the public good, whether these laws are taken from Islam or elsewhere. The ruler may therefore adopt laws originally drafted by the French or the Brazilian parliament, with no reference to Islam whatsoever, provided that he is satisfied that he is permitted to legislate in this matter, and that he has not caused anyone to be sinful. The Islamists may well accuse him of "ruling by other than what Allah revealed", to which his defence would be that he had ruled in accordance to what Allah had revealed, as Allah's revelation in this matter indicated permissibility. It is imporant to note that the permissibility here refers to the act of legislating, and not to the actions themselves that are being regulated by the legislation.
Thus, even according to the Islamist argument, a secular ruler may be exonerated for adopting and implementing man-made laws, thus bridging the second of the three divides between the two schools of political thought. Man does, after all, have the right to legislate; even according to the Islamists!
9 comments:
I always thought Islam only indicated that it was necessary to implement the hudood? As a) there are no laws to be executed on a state level inherently, it is up to the head of state to criminalise an action and choose the punishment as they would be tazir. So for example if someone was to violate the rules of Islam such as taking riba and setting up a abnk that undertakes riba based transactions, it may be haram but not criminal or illegal unless made so by the head of state, and there would be no punishments without one being assigned by the head of state as being so, it could just be left to the ulema to prevent.
b) he should implement any laws unless he thought he had to, and then you obeyed them unless it was to do something absolutely and totally unjustifiable i.e. you were doing something absolutely haram e.g. you were obliged by law to have be a prostitute.
c)State laws were administrative laws which were called mukhalafaat - differing with the state laws - i.e. invented laws by the head of state (not kufr as they were chosen by the government).
d) the political system and legal system are always therefore at the discretion of the people and government not defined by Islam and therefore defined by man! Hence the state legislates and defines the political structure according to Islamist philosophy.
e) this then is binding as we should always respect and obey the laws and not rebel or voice discontent outside legal parameters.
In fact if the people don't to apply the hudood - according to some jurists you mention on teh site - then even this is acceptable. Specifically Ibn Taymia and Shawkani in your site from nayl ul-awtar but also the Zaydi Imam, Imam Mahdi in his hadaiq ul-Azhar (which Shawkani wrote a famous commentary on titled sayl ul-jara ala haqaiq ul-azhar) - it is up to the State to abandon the hudood for maslaha.
Rashad
beware the power of the darkside, anger, hatred and egos are what fuels it, do not succusuccmbmb to this, always maintain your own islamic adhab
i disagree with rashad's point regarding the hudood being abandoned for maslaha rather the hudood does not meet the condition to be applied hence it was not applied. Also this issue of abandonment did not occur as a legislation, rather it was held to certain areas of the islamic state only.
genius
Alhamdulillah. I was not speaking in a historical context. Agreed that at certain times in history it was abandoned for legitimate reasons e.g. By Umar ibn al-Khattab (ra) who felt that during famine it would be unjust to cut the hand of the theif.
What I was stating rather was teh fiqh position of Imam Ahmed ibn Murtada al-Mahdi the author of Hadaiq ul-Azhar teh work which Shawkani commented upon in his famous sayl ul-Jarar, which states lahu an-takheeruha aw isqaatuha lil-maslaha - It is up to the head of state (Imam) to abandon the hudood or delay them if he see's an interest in doing so.
This in fact historically took place when the ottoman state abandoned the hudood and adopted the french penal code (See Nizam ul-Islam; Islamic State by al-Nabhani and How the khilafah was destroyed by Abdul Qadeem Zaloom). This according to the latter reference was justified by Ulema and the chief Mufti.
Rashad
To Toppled pyramid,
1. Is there a base-line as to what is an islamic opinion?
2. Is that base-line definite, or is there differences?
3. Obedience to the current rulers is based on indefinite evidence, and since the rulers are forcing people and to certain extant killing people; why cannot the people rebell against the rulers based on their opinion?
4. From the discussion on this blogg, I get the impression that everything is allowed as long as their is some justification from Islam, so the question is; is homosexuality/lesbianism allowed I've heard people justify it from Islam like the Al-fateh org. in America?
5. Are groups such as Ahmediya, Qadiyani and Nation of Islam Muslim or not?
6. Is the Shia concept of Muttah marriage allowed?
7. If the above is not allowed then is it the business of the State to punish them?
You may hold the view that the above is haram, but my question is that are they legitimate ikhtilafi issues?
Thank you
1. What has a shubhat daleel (a semblence of evidence) - to quote from Shaykh Taqi ul-Din al-Nabhani, what is percieved a having a hujjah in the mind of the mustadlil (deducer) - from Shakhsiyah Islamiyah.
2. Ijtihad is according to Shawkani and al-Nabhani in any issue which does not have a qati-Dalil (definitive evidence). According to Abul Husayn al-Basri ijtihad is allowed in every issue which there is ikhtilaf (not agreed upon - as consensus is a source for most sscholars) - see Irshad ul-Fuhul chapter: majal ul-Ijtihad.
3. According to shawkani the eveidence is Mutawatir and clear in meaning that the prohibition of rebelling against a tyrant whio is a Muslim e.g. someone who kills people; see Doosiyah by Hizb ut-Tahrir which quotes Shawkani in this regard (also see Beirawi's article on rebellion). It is however accepted that there are different interpretations and some have incorrectly permitted it according Imam al-Izz ibn Abdul-Salam in his qawiad ul-kubra. the HIzb state that this is forbidden and only allowed for qati kufr.
4. You need to follow the blog properly as these questions have already been answered such as the prohibition of Homosexuality in Islam and its defintive nature. Also this is not good adab to a) ask questions regarding definitive matters as it is an implicit accusation and the Salaf like Imam Shafi'I warned against this see Studies in Usul ul-Fiqh By Iyad Hilal - ex member of HT. B) You have explicitly made an accusation from your poor reading of the blog.
5. Mass takfir is not an Islamic characteristic and a bida of modern times. Anyone not believing in any definitive article of muslim faith is not a muslim e.g. the verse explicitly mentioning the khatm-nubuwwah is well knwon and ibn Kathir mentions this is nass sareeh (explicit text regarding the issue as is the ijma of te Ummah from the sahabah onwards throughout the the period of the Muslim nation.
6. According to HT it is an opinion of the shia and valid but they don't adopt it - they say so in thir Q and A - this is well known and can be found in tehir fiqhi file - a number of questions regarding teh same discussion. Ata Abu Rishta the engineer recently erroneously copntradicting the previous answers on the subject in his non-adopted book taysis ul-wuslul ila ilm ul-Usul stated tehre is ijma on this issue - Imam Amidi in his Ihkam ul-Ahkam stated it was agreed by ahlus-Sunna that it is prohibited but not Ijma as the exception of the report from ibn Abbas (ra) permitting it. Hence it shazz (abbarent) and not mutabar (considered as valid) and can't be accepted but since HT don't accept the consensus of the jurists (Ijma) as a source they don't consider it a munkar.
7. According to HT in the book nizam ul-uqoobat (punishment system) it is the business of the state and at the states discretion i.e. tazir whether to punish them or not. Imam al-Izz ibn Abdul-Salam al-Sulami states in his qawaid it is up to the ruler to punish or forgive as not every sin is ounished and not everything which isn;t a sin is permitted e.g. a group who rebels because of the mistaken interpretation isn't sinful but accrding to Imam in his book al-qawaid they would be quelled and prevented from doing so.
As for passing a state law forbidding these matters this is not fard according to Taqi ul--Din al-Nabhani and it is not necessary to punish people with the exeption of the homosexuality which is a hadd for men and tazir for women - this is stated in the book attributed to Abdul-Rahman Maliki but issued by Hizb ut-Tahrir under the leadership al-Nabhani (may Allah have mercy upon them all).
As for the issue of rebelling against the rulers for these matters this is not permitted according to the Ulema of Ahlus Sunnah as Imam Nawawi stated in Sharuh Sahih Muslim that such rebellion shouldn't occur unless the ruler is a kafir (ma lam yakfur) and shouldn't forcefully nor automatically removed and he states this is the position of ahlus-Sunnah. This was re-iterated by the Hanafi Imam Badr ul-Din Ayni in his Umdat ul-Qari and Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani in Fatuh ul-Bari with exactly the same words as Imam Nawawi and also by Imam Shawkani. Rather what they all say is disobey the Imam if he orders with a sin (amr bil-masiyah) i.e. passes a haram law; you disobey it if you can, but of you can't then you are not sinful but you don't rebel - see nayl ul-awtar, Dararay ul-mudiyah and sayl ul-Jarar all of Imam Shawkani.
Hence if someone doesn't follow this opinion he is entitled to keep his intellectual opinion but forbidden from enacting it as the order of the ruler is the law and his opinion is enacted; amr ul-Imam yarfa ul-khilafh/nafiazan - order of the ruler resolves any dispute and is executed as the law of the land. Hence according to HT (who adopt this principle in Nizam ul-Hukm/Ruling System) this is binding upon them and they msut not rebel but intellectuallly defend their modernist, revisionsist, neo-mutazilite/kharijite political stance [though conflicting with their fiqhi qawaid] stance of kufr but not kufr, but they would be commiting a munkar (violating what they adopt as shariah) if they rebelled and attempted forcefully change the ruler by military force.
This should resolve this issue and hope the strange questions will now stop.
Chancellor
What has a shubhat daleel (a semblence of evidence) - to quote from Shaykh Taqi ul-Din al-Nabhani, what is percieved a having a hujjah in the mind of the mustadlil (deducer) - from Shakhsiyah Islamiyah.
rashad i know it you who runs this site. your so low can't believe it.
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